Image via Wikipedia The following explanation came from a fb friend, Dawn Rubin.
Btw, I read up the explanation from the Introduction Section of my "Amplified Bible", "Harper Study Bible" and others and they all concur the same. Astonishing! It is in my Bibles.
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1 John 1:9
The Apostle John wrote this pastoral letter to several gentile congregations.
There are 5 chapters in this book.
In the First chapter, John is not addressing believers.
We know this for several reasons.:
1) John does not address the people in the first chapter the same as he does in the next 4 chapters.
For example; In chapter 2 he addresses them as "My dear children".
In chapter 3 he addresses them "children of God".
In chapter 4 he addresses them as "Friends & Dear children".
And lastly in chapter 5 vs. 13--he addresses them as "to you who believe in the name of the Son" .
We notice that in the 1st chapter, John doesn't address them at all.
2) Apparently these people did not have fellowship with them...
We know this by the statement John made in verse 3 "we proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us."
3) Apparently these people did not have fellowship with the Father...
We know this by the statement John makes in the last part of verse 3, "And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ"...
John makes this statement because THEIR fellowship was not with the Father.
4) In verse 8, John says "If we claim to be without sin"
---well hold on a second!
If we accepted Jesus, we already claimed to be WITH SIN.
WE, as Believers have already acknowledged that we have sin...
This is why we accepted Jesus in the first place.
So apparently John was addressing this to unbelievers who claimed to not have sin.
5) In verse 9, John says "If we confess our sins"
--well hold on!!
As believers, we ALREADY confessed (acknowledged that we have sin)..so we know this is addressed to unbelievers.
6) In verse 9, John says, "he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins"
well hold on!!!
As believers we are ALREADY forgiven for ALL our sins,(Col 2:13)(Mark 3:28)(Heb 10:12,14)(Heb 8:12) (Heb 10:18)...
Why would God have to forgive us all over again when as believers He already promised that ALL our sins are forgiven and He remembers them no more?
7) In verse 9 John says, "and purify us form all unrighteousness"
...well hold ON!!!!
As believers, we are ALREADY Pure and RIGHTEOUS!(2 Cor 5:21) (Rom 10:10) (1 Cor 6:11)--
If we believe 1 John 1:9 is intended for believers, then that would mean that he doesn't forgiven us ALL our sins.
1 John 1:9 was written to unbelievers who did not fellowship with John and did not have fellowship with the Father.
This group of people did not believe they had sin to begin with...
We know as Christians, we have already confessed(acknowledged) our sin.
We are Already Forgiven and we are already pure and Righteous based on the Finished work of the Cross.
The Apostle John wrote this pastoral letter to several gentile congregations.
There are 5 chapters in this book.
In the First chapter, John is not addressing believers.
We know this for several reasons.:
1) John does not address the people in the first chapter the same as he does in the next 4 chapters.
For example; In chapter 2 he addresses them as "My dear children".
In chapter 3 he addresses them "children of God".
In chapter 4 he addresses them as "Friends & Dear children".
And lastly in chapter 5 vs. 13--he addresses them as "to you who believe in the name of the Son" .
We notice that in the 1st chapter, John doesn't address them at all.
2) Apparently these people did not have fellowship with them...
We know this by the statement John made in verse 3 "we proclaim to you what we have seen and heard, so that you also may have fellowship with us."
3) Apparently these people did not have fellowship with the Father...
We know this by the statement John makes in the last part of verse 3, "And our fellowship is with the Father and with his Son, Jesus Christ"...
John makes this statement because THEIR fellowship was not with the Father.
4) In verse 8, John says "If we claim to be without sin"
---well hold on a second!
If we accepted Jesus, we already claimed to be WITH SIN.
WE, as Believers have already acknowledged that we have sin...
This is why we accepted Jesus in the first place.
So apparently John was addressing this to unbelievers who claimed to not have sin.
5) In verse 9, John says "If we confess our sins"
--well hold on!!
As believers, we ALREADY confessed (acknowledged that we have sin)..so we know this is addressed to unbelievers.
6) In verse 9, John says, "he is faithful and just and will forgive us our sins"
well hold on!!!
As believers we are ALREADY forgiven for ALL our sins,(Col 2:13)(Mark 3:28)(Heb 10:12,14)(Heb 8:12) (Heb 10:18)...
Why would God have to forgive us all over again when as believers He already promised that ALL our sins are forgiven and He remembers them no more?
7) In verse 9 John says, "and purify us form all unrighteousness"
...well hold ON!!!!
As believers, we are ALREADY Pure and RIGHTEOUS!(2 Cor 5:21) (Rom 10:10) (1 Cor 6:11)--
If we believe 1 John 1:9 is intended for believers, then that would mean that he doesn't forgiven us ALL our sins.
1 John 1:9 was written to unbelievers who did not fellowship with John and did not have fellowship with the Father.
This group of people did not believe they had sin to begin with...
We know as Christians, we have already confessed(acknowledged) our sin.
We are Already Forgiven and we are already pure and Righteous based on the Finished work of the Cross.
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Comments:
Mark Boyce
John was actually addressing that verse to the Gnostics who had infiltrated that church. They believed that there was no such thing as sin, that they had never sinned, and that Jesus was just a good man with esoteric mystical powers.
Sammy Bilyeu
Gnosticism was perhaps the most dangerous heresy that threatened the early church during the first three centuries. Influenced by such philosophers as Plato, Gnosticism is based on two false premises. First, it espouses a... dualism regarding spirit and matter. Gnostics assert that matter is inherently evil and spirit is good. As a result of this presupposition, Gnostics believe anything done in the body, even the grossest sin, has no meaning because real life exists in the spirit realm only.
Second, Gnostics claim to possess an elevated knowledge, a “higher truth” known only to a certain few. Gnosticism comes from the Greek word gnosis which means “to know.” Gnostics claim to possess a higher knowledge, not from the Bible, but acquired on some mystical higher plain of existence. Gnostics see themselves as a privileged class elevated above everybody else by their higher, deeper knowledge of God.
They also believed that Jesus did not come in the flesh as a human in which John warns against such people who believes that Jesus did not come in the flesh. These are also called anit-christs.
Sammy Bilyeu keep in mind that the pharasee believed in the resurrection and they saw Jesus in the flesh. The "Gnostic" didn't believe in the resurrection or Jesus coming in the flesh.
Mark Boyce
If you have an Amplified Bible, the preface to I John also puts some light on to whom John is referring to in his first letter.
Mark Boyce
Docetism is also mentioned. It is part of the gnostic doctrine that is fundamental to Gnosticism; that is that Christ's body was not human, but either a phantasm, or of real but only celestial substance, and that therefore his sufferings we...re only seemingly real or true, but not necessarily so. They thought they were the only chosen ones to have this understanding, that we know to be a lie.
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